india

why in india offical langvage is a langvage which not spocken by lower class,or we can say which is not spocken by mass?? start from ,sanskrit,once its was a langvage of inteligent people in india and all work is done in sanskrit,but its was never a mass langvage,the only good thing is that sanskrit is only indian langvage which was offical at some time.Be it farshi,urdu,english,our ruler never speck indian langvage or we can say langvage of mass.see history,there is allwasy a diffrence between in mass(people) and ruler. why???—  is i m right???